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ISACA IT-Risk-Fundamentals Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Risk Assessment and Analysis: This topic evaluates identified risks. Candidates will learn how to prioritize risks based on their assessments, which is essential for making informed decisions regarding mitigation strategies.
Topic 2	Risk Identification: This section focuses on recognizing potential risks within IT systems. It explores various techniques for identifying risks, including threats, vulnerabilities, and other factors that could impact organizational operations.
Topic 3	Risk Monitoring, Reporting, and Communication: This domain targets tracking and communicating risk information within organizations. It focuses on best practices for monitoring ongoing risks, reporting findings to stakeholders, and ensuring effective communication throughout the organization.

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ISACA IT Risk Fundamentals Certificate Exam Sample Questions (Q24-Q29):

NEW QUESTION # 24
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics designed to:

A. be a direct measure of risk for each business line.
B. measure current risk levels in comparison to past levels.
C. alert there is an increased chance of exceeding risk appetite.

Answer: C

Explanation:
KRIs are designed to provide early warning signs that a risk event is becoming more likely or that the organization's risk appetite may be exceeded. They are leading indicators that help proactively manage risk.
While KRIs can be used to measure risk within business lines (B), their primary purpose is to alert about potential changes in risk levels, not just provide a static measure. Comparing current to past levels (C) can be part of KRI monitoring, but the focus is on early warning.

NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following is the MAIN reason to conduct a penetration test?

A. To validate the results of a control self-assessment
B. To validate the results of a vulnerability assessment
C. To validate the results of a threat assessment

Answer: B

Explanation:
A penetration test (or "pen test") is a simulated attack on a system or network to identify vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers. The main reason to conduct a pen test is to validate the findings of a vulnerability assessment. A vulnerability assessment identifies potential weaknesses, while a pen test attempts to exploit those weaknesses to demonstrate their actual impact.
While pen tests can indirectly provide information relevant to control self-assessments (B) and threat assessments (C), their primary purpose is to validate vulnerability assessments (A).

NEW QUESTION # 26
Which of the following is an example of an inductive method to gather information?

A. Controls gap analysis
B. Vulnerability analysis
C. Penetration testing

Answer: C

Explanation:
Penetration testing is an example of an inductive method to gather information. Here's why:
* Vulnerability Analysis: This typically involves a deductive approach where existing knowledge of vulnerabilities is applied to identify weaknesses in the system. It is more of a systematic analysis rather than an exploratory method.
* Controls Gap Analysis: This is a deductive method where existing controls are evaluated against standards or benchmarks to identify gaps. It follows a structured approach based on predefined criteria.
* Penetration Testing: This involves actively trying to exploit vulnerabilities in the system to discover new security weaknesses. It is an exploratory and inductive method, where testers simulate attacks to uncover security flaws that were not previously identified.
Penetration testing uses an inductive approach by exploring and testing the system in various ways to identify potential security gaps, making it the best example of an inductive method.
References:
* ISA 315 Anlage 5 and 6: Understanding vulnerabilities, threats, and controls in IT systems.
* GoBD and ISO-27001 guidelines on minimizing attack vectors and conducting security assessments.
These references ensure a comprehensive understanding of the concerns and methodologies involved in IT risk and audit processes.

NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following is MOST likely to expose an organization to adverse threats?

A. Complex enterprise architecture
B. Incomplete cybersecurity training records
C. Improperly configured network devices

Answer: C

Explanation:
The MOST likely factor to expose an organization to adverse threats is improperly configured network devices. Here's why:
* Complex Enterprise Architecture: While complexity can introduce vulnerabilities and increase the difficulty of managing security, it is not inherently the most likely factor to cause exposure. Properly managed complex architectures can still be secure.
* Improperly Configured Network Devices: This is the most likely cause of exposure to threats.
Network devices such as routers, firewalls, and switches are critical for maintaining security boundaries and controlling access. If these devices are not configured correctly, they can create significant vulnerabilities. For example, default configurations or weak passwords can be easily exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, leading to data breaches or network disruptions.
* Incomplete Cybersecurity Training Records: While important, incomplete training records alone do not directly expose the organization to threats. It indicates a potential gap in awareness and preparedness but does not directly result in vulnerabilities that can be exploited.
Given the critical role network devices play in an organization's security infrastructure, improper configuration of these devices poses the greatest risk of exposure to adverse threats.
References:
* ISA 315 Anlage 5 and 6: Understanding IT risks and controls in an organization's environment, particularly the configuration and management of IT infrastructure.
* SAP Reports: Example configurations and the impact of network device misconfigurations on security.

NEW QUESTION # 28
Which of the following is the MOST important aspect of key performance indicators (KPIs)?

A. KPIs aid management in monitoring the organization's IT infrastructure capacity.
B. KPIs provide inputs for monitoring the usage of IT assets to determine return on investment (ROI).
C. KPIs identify underperforming assets that may impact the achievement of operational goals.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Definition and Importance of KPIs:
* Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are measurable values that demonstrate how effectively an organization is achieving key business objectives. They are critical for assessing performance against targets.
Primary Aspect of KPIs:
* The primary aspect of KPIs is their ability to identify underperforming assets or processes that may impact the achievement of operational goals. This aligns with the fundamental purpose of KPIs, which is to measure performance and indicate areas that need improvement.
* By identifying underperforming assets, management can take corrective actions to align performance with strategic objectives, ensuring that the organization remains on track to achieve its goals.
Comparison of Options:
* BandCare important functions of KPIs, but they are not the primary focus. Monitoring IT asset usage and ROI (B) and infrastructure capacity (C) are specific applications of KPIs but do not encompass the overall critical aspect of identifying performance issues that impact operational goals.
* Effective KPIs should provide a comprehensive view that helps in identifying critical performance gaps impacting the organization's objectives.
Conclusion:
* Therefore, the most important aspect of KPIs is that theyidentify underperforming assets that may impact the achievement of operational goals.

NEW QUESTION # 29
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2025 IT-Risk-Fundamentals New Dumps Ppt | Authoritative 100% Free IT-Risk-Fundamentals Reliable Exam Pass4sure

ISACA IT-Risk-Fundamentals Exam Syllabus Topics:

Free PDF Quiz 2025 ISACA IT-Risk-Fundamentals: High-quality IT Risk Fundamentals Certificate Exam New Dumps Ppt

ISACA IT Risk Fundamentals Certificate Exam Sample Questions (Q24-Q29):

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